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This edited version has been archived due to the length of time since original publication. It should not be regarded as indicative of the ATO's current views. The law may have changed since original publication, and views in the edited version may also be affected by subsequent precedents and new approaches to the application of the law.

You cannot rely on this record in your tax affairs. It is not binding and provides you with no protection (including from any underpaid tax, penalty or interest). In addition, this record is not an authority for the purposes of establishing a reasonably arguable position for you to apply to your own circumstances. For more information on the status of edited versions of private advice and reasons we publish them, see PS LA 2008/4.

Edited version of private advice

Authorisation Number: 1012672764839

Ruling

Subject: Capital raising

Question 1

Will the Instrument be treated as an equity interest (as defined in subsection 995-1(1) of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997) in the Entity by virtue of the operation of Division 974 of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997?

Answer

Yes

Question 2

Will the Distributions made by the Entity on the Instrument be frankable non-share dividends within the meaning of sections 202-30 and 202-40 of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997?

Answer

Yes

Question 3

Will section 204-15 of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997 apply to the Transaction?

Answer

No

Question 4

Will section 204-30 of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997 apply to the Transaction?

Answer

No

Question 5

Will section 177EA of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1936 apply to the Transaction?

Answer

No

Question 6

Will the Commissioner make a determination under subsection 45C(3) of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1936 in relation to the Transaction?

Answer

No

Question 7

Is the Instrument subject to the commercial debt forgiveness provisions in Division 245 of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997?

Answer

No

Question 8

Will an assessable profit or gain arise for the Entity in relation to the issue of the Instrument?

Answer

No

Question 9

Will the Entity be required to recognise gains and losses under Division 230 of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997 in relation to the Instrument?

Answer

No

Question 10

Will the share capital account of the Entity become tainted, within the meaning of Division 197 of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997, by an issue of the Instrument?

Answer

No

Relevant facts and circumstances

The Transaction concerns the issuance of an Instrument by an Entity.

Relevant legislative provisions

Reasons for decision

Question 1

Will the Instrument be treated as an equity interest (as defined in subsection 995-1(1) of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997) in the Entity by virtue of the operation of Division 974 of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997?

Answer

Yes

Detailed reasoning

Subsection 995-1(1) of ITAA 1997 provides, among other things, that:

Subsection 974-70(1) of the ITAA 1997 provides that:

The equity test in Subsection 974-75(1) of the ITAA 1997 is as follows:

Equity interests

Item

Interest

1

An interest in the company as a member or stockholder of the company.

2

An interest that carries a right to a variable or fixed return from the company if either the right itself, or the amount of the return, is in substance or effect *contingent on the economic performance (whether past, current or future) of:

    (a)   the company; or

    (b)   a part of the company's activities; or

    (c)   a *connected entity of the company or a part of the activities of a connected entity of the company.

The return may be a return of an amount invested in the interest.

3

An interest that carries a right to a variable or fixed return from the company if either the right itself, or the amount of the return, is at the discretion of:

    (a)   the company; or

    (b)   a *connected entity of the company.

The return may be a return of an amount invested in the interest.

4

An interest issued by the company that:

    (a) gives its holder (or a *connected entity of the holder) a right to be issued with an *equity interest in the company or a *connected entity of the company; or

(b) is an *interest that will, or may, convert into an equity interest in the company or a connected entity of the company.

The first requirement in the equity test is that there must be a scheme. 'Scheme' is defined broadly in subsection 995-1(1) of the ITAA 1997 to mean any arrangement; or any scheme, plan, proposal, action, course of action or course of conduct, whether unilateral or otherwise. The issue of the Instrument will constitute a scheme as described.

The next requirement of the equity test is that the scheme must give rise to an interest set out in the above table. The Instrument will satisfy the equity test in subsection 974-75(1) of the ITAA 1997 as an interest covered by items 2 and 4 of the table in that subsection:

Accordingly, the Instrument will be characterised as an equity interest in the Entity, unless it is also characterised as a debt interest, in which case it will constitute a debt interest: refer paragraph 974-70(1)(b) of the ITAA 1997.

The Instrument will not be characterised as debt interest in the Entity or a connected entity of the Entity under Subdivision 974-B of the ITAA 1997

Subsection 974-15(1) of the ITAA 1997 provides that:

Subsection 974-20(1) of the ITAA 1997 provides that:

  A *scheme satisfies the debt test in this subsection in relation to an entity if:

For the purposes of paragraph 974-20(1)(b) of the ITAA 1997 and subsections 974-20(2) and (3) of the ITAA 1997, a financial benefit provided or received under the scheme is taken into account only if it is one that the relevant entity has an effectively non-contingent obligation to provide: subsection 974-20(4) of the ITAA 1997.

'Effectively non-contingent obligation' is defined in subsection 995-1(1) of the ITAA 1997 to have the meaning given by section 974-135 of the ITAA 1997. There is an effectively non-contingent obligation to take an action under a scheme if, having regard to the pricing, terms and conditions of the scheme, there is in substance or effect a non-contingent obligation to take that action: subsection 974-135(1) of the ITAA 1997.

This applies to providing a financial benefit under the scheme, or terminating the scheme: subsection 974-135(2) of the ITAA 1997. An obligation is non-contingent if it is not contingent on any event, condition or situation (including the economic performance of the entity having the obligation or a connected entity of that entity) other than the ability or willingness of that entity or connected entity to meet the obligation: subsection 974-135(3) of the ITAA 1997.

In terms of the debt test requirements in subsection 974-20(1) of the ITAA 1997:

Paragraph 974-20(1)(a)

As stated above, the financing arrangement requirement is satisfied.

Paragraph 974-20(1)(b)

The Entity will receive a financial benefit equal to the initial principal amount as paragraph 974-160(1)(a) of the ITAA 1997 states that 'financial benefit' means 'anything of economic value'.

Paragraph 974-20(1)(c)

This requires the Entity to have, or the Entity and a connected entity of the Entity each to have an effectively non-contingent obligation under each Instrument to provide a financial benefit or benefits to one or more entities after the issue price of the initial principal amount for each Instrument is received.

The Terms indicate that the requirement of the debt test in paragraph 974-20(1)(c) of the ITAA 1997 is not satisfied and there is no need to further consider the other requirements in section 974-20 of the ITAA 1997.

Consequently, the issue of the Instrument will not give rise to a debt interest in the Entity. Further, the Commissioner will not determine that the issue of the Instrument otherwise gives rise to a debt interest pursuant to section 974-65 of the ITAA 1997. Thus, Each Instrument will constitute an equity interest in the Entity for the purposes of Subdivision 974-C of the ITAA 1997.

Question 2

Will the Distributions made by the Entity on the Instrument be frankable non-share dividends within the meaning of sections 202-30 and 202-40 of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997?

Answer

Yes

Detailed reasoning

Each Instrument issued by the Entity is an equity interest. Section 202-30 of the ITAA 1997 provides that distributions and non-share dividends are frankable unless it is specified that they are unfrankable. Section 202-40 of the ITAA 1997 provides that distributions and non-share dividends are frankable distributions to the extent that they are not unfrankable under section 202-45 of the ITAA 1997.

Section 202-45 of the ITAA 1997 sets out the circumstances under which an amount or distribution is taken to be unfrankable. Based on the facts and assumptions supplied by the Applicant, it is considered that none of those circumstances will apply to the Distributions made by the Entity on the Instrument.

Accordingly, Distributions made by the Entity on the Instrument will be frankable non-share dividends within the meaning of sections 202-30 and 202-40 of the ITAA 1997.

Question 3

Will section 204-15 of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997 apply to the Transaction?

Answer

No

Detailed reasoning

Subsection 204-15(1) of the ITAA 1997 provides that:

This section gives rise to a franking debit if:

This section would apply to the Transaction if the Holders of the Instrument have a choice or selection that enable them to receive a linked distribution from another entity that is franked to a greater or lesser extent than the distribution made by the Entity.

Based on the information furnished by the Applicant, there is no evidence that the requirements of subsection 204-15(1) will be satisfied in the circumstances of the Transaction.

Accordingly, section 204-15 of the ITAA 1997 will not apply.

Question 4

Will section 204-30 of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997 apply to the Transaction?

Answer

No

Detailed reasoning

Section 204-30 of the ITAA 1997 is a general anti-streaming measure that applies if an entity streams distributions (or distributions and other benefits) in such a way that:

When these conditions are met, subsection 204-30(1) of the ITAA 1997 empowers the Commissioner to make one or more of the determinations listed in subsection 204-30(3) of the ITAA 1997:

Imputation benefit is defined to include an entitlement to a tax offset under Division 207 of the ITAA 1997 as a result of the distribution (see subsection 204-30(6) of the ITAA 1997). It is reasonable to expect that the Instrument Holders will receive an imputation benefit because the Distributions payable in respect of the Instrument are frankable distributions, which are expected to be fully franked.

The remaining issue is whether there will be a streaming of distributions in the way described in section 204-30 of the ITAA 1997. The expression 'streams' is not defined in the ITAA 1997, however, the Explanatory Memorandum (EM) to the New Business Tax System (Imputation) Bill 2002 (Cth), which introduced subdivision 204-D of the ITAA 1997 states at paragraphs 3.28 to 3.29 that:

Based on the information provided by the Applicant, it is considered that section 204-30 of the ITAA 1997 will have no application to the Transaction.

Question 5

Will section 177EA of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1936 apply to the Transaction?

Answer

No

Detailed reasoning

Section 177EA of the ITAA 1936 is a general anti-avoidance provision that applies where one of the purposes (other than an incidental purpose) of a scheme is to enable a relevant taxpayer to obtain an imputation benefit. Where this purpose exists, subsection 177EA(5) of the ITAA 1936 empowers the Commissioner to make a determination that either:

Pursuant to subsection 177EA(3) of the ITAA 1936, the provision applies if the following conditions are satisfied:

Based on the information and the qualifications provided by the Applicant, the Commissioner's consideration of all of the relevant circumstances of the scheme would not, on balance, lead to a conclusion that the purpose of enabling Holders to obtain imputation benefits is more than incidental to the Entity's purpose of raising capital.

Accordingly, section 177EA of the ITAA 1936 will not apply to the Transaction.

Question 6

Will the Commissioner make a determination under subsection 45C(3) of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1936 in relation to the Transaction?

Answer

No

Detailed reasoning

Pursuant to subsection 45B(3) of the ITAA 1936, the Commissioner may make a determination that section 45C applies in relation to the whole, or a part, of a capital benefit.

If the Commissioner makes a determination under subsection 45B(3) of the ITAA 1936, the Commissioner may make a further determination under subsection 45C(3) that the capital benefit, or part of the capital benefit, was paid under a scheme for which a non-incidental purpose was to avoid franking debits arising in relation to the distribution. A determination under subsection 45C(3) results in a franking debit arising for the company.

Section 45B of the ITAA 1936 applies where:

Based on the information provided by the Applicant, paragraphs 45B(2)(a) and 45B(2)(b) are satisfied.

Paragraph 45B(2)(c) is not satisfied because the required element of purpose is not present. The Commissioner will not make a determination under subsection 45B(3) of the ITAA 1936 in relation to the Transaction. As the Commissioner will not make a determination under subsection 45B(3) of the ITAA 1936 that section 45C will apply, a determination under subsection 45C(3) of the ITAA 1936 cannot be made.

Question 7

Is the Instrument subject to the commercial debt forgiveness provisions in Division 245 of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997?

Answer

No

Detailed reasoning

Section 245-10 of the ITAA 1997 sets out the debts to which Division 245 applies:

Based on the information provided by the Applicant, paragraphs 245-10(a), 245-10(b) and 245-10(c) will not apply to the Instrument. As a result, the Instrument is not a 'commercial debt' under Division 245 of the ITAA 1936.

Question 8

Will an assessable profit or gain arise for the Entity in relation to the issue of the Instrument, and on conversion?

Answer

No

Detailed reasoning

Based on the information provided by the Applicant, no assessable profit or gain will arise for the Entity in relation to the issue of the Instrument, and on conversion to ordinary shares in the Entity.

Question 9

Will the Entity be required to recognise gains and losses under Division 230 of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997 in relation to the Instrument?

Answer

No

Detailed reasoning

Gains and losses from a financial arrangement are recognised under section 230-15 of the ITAA 1997. Pursuant to subsection 230-50(1) an equity interest constitutes a financial arrangement for the purpose of Division 230. As the Instrument is an equity interest for the purposes of Division 974 of the ITAA 1997, the Instrument will be a financial arrangement for the purpose of Division 230.

Based on the information provided by the Applicant, the Entity will not be required to recognise gains and losses under Division 230 of the ITAA 1997 in relation to the Instrument.

Question 10

Will the share capital account of the Entity become tainted, within the meaning of Division 197 of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997, by an issue of the Instrument or on conversion?

Answer

No

Detailed reasoning

Based on the information and the accounting journal entries provided by the Applicant, the conversion of the instrument to ordinary shares will not constitute a transfer of an amount to the share capital account for the purposes of section 197-5 of the ITAA 1997 and will not cause the share capital accounts to become tainted for the purposes of Division 197 of the ITAA 1997.


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